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What is the full exegesis of 2:234 - 235 as it relates to iddah,?

Started by kaamil, November 19, 2021, 09:26:21 PM

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kaamil

What is the full exegesis of 2:234 - 235  as it relates to iddah and menopausal woman who lost her husband and making proposal to a widow while in Iddah?
no attempt must be made to enslave man mentally, it is his destiny to be free.

kaamil

In this modern era, I think if the purpose of iddah is to determine pregnancy, Iddah is no longer necessary because the quickest and the most simplest test is pregnancy test.
I also believe that for those who are in clear menopausal stage there's no need for iddah for such a people.
The biggest question that bother my mind is that if God is All knowing, wouldn't He He know that all the knowledge and development will evolve as at now, or is it that quran is discussion a completely different topic and we are mistaken it for iddah?
@wakas, @Ayman @Nabi
no attempt must be made to enslave man mentally, it is his destiny to be free.

kaamil

If there's any discussion on iddah (waiting period) , widow, Marriage proposal during iddah, can the admin tag me on it?
no attempt must be made to enslave man mentally, it is his destiny to be free.

good logic

Peace kaamil.
You say ,quote:
"The biggest question that bother my mind is that if God is All knowing, wouldn't He He know that all the knowledge and development will evolve as at now, or is it that quran is discussion a completely different topic and we are mistaken it for iddah?"

It is a different topic .Pregnancy or having children already are irrelevant here .A widow has no restrictions or ties to another man. It is a pre-marital interim . I believe it is time to grieve,, reflect and get back to some kind of normality . There may be engagement or getting to know the new partner , but marriage can wait for this required interim . GOD confirms for us in the verse that He has full knowledge of everything we do at all times:
"
Those who die and leave wives, their widows shall wait four months and ten days (before they remarry). Once they fulfill their interim, you commit no error by letting them do whatever righteous matters they wish to do. God is fully Cognizant of everything you do."
GOD bless you.
Peace.
TOTAL LOYALTY TO GOD ALONE.   IN GOD I TRUST
38:65″ Say:? I warn you; There is no other god beside GOD, the One, the Supreme.?
[url="https://total-loyalty-to-god-alone.co.uk/?p=28"]https://total-loyalty-to-god-alone.co.uk/?p=28[/url]

jkhan

Peace..
Very good question for believers and not for conventional Muslims..
Can a man marry the next day after his wife's demise.. Is there any stipulated rules you can derive within Quran?  I don't think so.. So giving options like grievances is very much not accepted.. Why especially 4 months and 10 days of grievances. That's bizzare..
So this condition is only targeted women ie widow women.. And why.. That's the concern..
2:228 says for especially divorced women to wait for three periods.. It is less than three months roughly..
This is definitely concerned with pregnancy.. It us manifest with the verse itself... But not 2:234-235..
So.. It us neither grievance nor pregnancy..  Then what?

Married woman suppose she has already a child and living in the husband house.. That's worthy though not mandatory.. So after husbands death she has been given enough time to conclude what to do next.. Whether to remain in that house or leave or even remarry another person.. I think that 2:228 is even valid for a widow woman.. Anyhiw her waiting period is more than 3 periods so it is naturally covered.   By marrying a man she had a relationship developed but with her new decision that relationship will be terminated since husband passed away.. But her rights will remain.. She deserves what husband left as widow.. These formalities should be completed within those 130 days roughly.. Once everything is done only she is deserved to marry.. No one can chase her from the house by any means.. She can still propose but nikah should take place after prescribed waiting time.. This is a complete right given to a woman in Quran..

That's my understanding.. Relevant to technology.. I think 2:228 can be considered  .. If after divorce,  if she wants to check whether she is pregnant or not it is up to her to use the technology to find out.. So after knowing waiting for three periods is sheer meaningless.. So she has not hidden and everything is manifest.. It is only helps to clarify whose child biologically and nothing else.. Women here not denigraded..
Allah could have applied three periods foe widows as well.. But different law.. It shows it is not pregnancy.. Neither grievances.. Coz no law for Men..
Women are given their best possible rights within Quran..
[url="https://rifkyy2020.wixsite.com/expressandlearntruth/post/facts-of-al-quran-08"]https://rifkyy2020.wixsite.com/expressandlearntruth/post/facts-of-al-quran-08[/url]

kaamil

How justifiable is quran to legislate iddah for women and not for men. Men should grieve as well over the loss of their spouse not just women. I agreed with you that the requirement is not for mourning. If it is for pregnancy what happened to women who already menopausal and lost their husbands, should they have to wait?
Supposing the woman in question is the breadwinner of the family has she iddah to do? Supposing she is the owner of the building, has she iddah to do? Thanks for your input
no attempt must be made to enslave man mentally, it is his destiny to be free.

jkhan

Quote from: kaamil on November 20, 2021, 06:58:32 AM
How justifiable is quran to legislate iddah for women and not for men. Men should grieve as well over the loss of their spouse not just women. I agreed with you that the requirement is not for mourning. If it is for pregnancy what happened to women who already menopausal and lost their husbands, should they have to wait?
Supposing the woman in question is the breadwinner of the family has she iddah to do? Supposing she is the owner of the building, has she iddah to do? Thanks for your input

I don't know to whose response you are reacting here..

Anyhow idda in Quran is not the conventional Muslim idda. . You know one thing my grandma was in idda 20 years back when she lost my grandfather...  :rotfl: funny thing is she is not even coming infront of the people.. Even by chance if someone happen to see her she felt guilty and violated against God.. That's conventional idda.. Ignorance at its best...
Brother.. After demise of husband women can do everything.. She can go to school to teach.. She can go to work etc etc.. Only thing is she should wait single for 4.3 months..
Men doesn't need to observe idda coz men already has the right..  No one to suppress men.. Women then and even now being suppressed in families... So Allah has introduced thus idda in verse 2:234-235 considering women's safety...

[url="https://rifkyy2020.wixsite.com/expressandlearntruth/post/facts-of-al-quran-08"]https://rifkyy2020.wixsite.com/expressandlearntruth/post/facts-of-al-quran-08[/url]

tlihawa

Salam kaamil,

Quote from: kaamil on November 20, 2021, 01:03:26 AM
In this modern era, I think if the purpose of iddah is to determine pregnancy, Iddah is no longer necessary because the quickest and the most simplest
test is pregnancy test.

Yes maybe you're right, but iddah still needed not just to determine pregnancy, but also to explain what is pregnancy in Al Quran. So this verse will always relevant. The context is 2:233 -2:234

Here is my old post regarding that when someone had asked whether the bearing period is only six months in Quran.

Quote from: tlihawa on February 06, 2018, 11:48:00 AM
Salaam MaryK,
Please be aware that Quran use different calculation and definition for the bearing period. It's not necessary to follow the term "9 months pregnancy" used in modern medical knowledge. I prefer to use 40 weeks pregnancy to make it easier for you.

Al Quran use luni-solar calendar based on fact stated in 10:5 and 17:12. So the term month is referring to the lunar month (29.5 days) and year is referring to solar year (365 days).

So let's start with this verse first,

46:15 And We enjoined the human being to do good to his parents. His mother bore him with hardship, gave birth to him in hardship, and his bearing and weaning lasts thirty months.

2:233 And the birth mothers may suckle their children for two years complete, if they wish to complete the suckling.

So lets extract all those cycles into small fraction based on Luni-solar calculation,

Bearing+Weaning = 30 months = 30 x 29.5 = 885 days
Weaning = 2 years = 2 x 365 days = 730 days = 730/29.5 =  ~24 months

Now we can calculate the bearing period just like this:  885 - 730 = 155 days, or 155/29.5 = ~5.25 months

So where's the rest compare to the "9 months" pregnancy?

In Quran,.. the first 4 months and 10 days doesn't count as bearing period,..but this one is called "interim period". But actually it's the same as first 4 months of bearing period in modern medical knowledge. You can find it in the next verse:

2:234 And those of you whose lives are terminated, and they leave wives behind, they will have a required interim period of four months and ten.

Now lets do the same thing:

Interim period = 4 months + 10 days = 128 days

If you sum up all those number of days, it will be like this:

Interim period+Bearing Period : 128 +  155 days = 283 days.

Now you can divide that number of days into week : 283 days / 7 = 40 weeks.

It will fit all modern medical knowledge which is 40 weeks preganancy.

https://www.fitpregnancy.com/pregnancy/week-week-pregnancy

All these calculation only work in Luni-Solar calendar which has the length of the month is 29.5 days and the length of the year is 365 days instead of 354 days.

Hope this helps.

Peace

Basically this verse also indirectly confirms that the calendar used by the Qur'an is luni-solar. Sorry if it's considered out of topic.

Peace

kaamil

Quote from: jkhan on November 20, 2021, 10:05:09 AM
After demise of husband women can do everything.. She can go to school to teach.. She can go to work etc etc.. Only thing is she should wait single for 4.3 months..
Men doesn't need to observe idda coz men already has the right..  No one to suppress men.. Women then and even now being suppressed in families... So Allah has introduced thus idda in verse 2:234-235 considering women's safety...
Thanks for your submission. I truly cherish your understanding as it seemed in line with mine. The unresolved question is if a woman already had a right AND She the breadwinner of the family, does waiting necessarily for her?
Does the word 'AZWAJ' necessarily mean woman, wife or widow?
no attempt must be made to enslave man mentally, it is his destiny to be free.

good logic

This is primarily to stop oppression of widows. And to give them the freedom to get on with their own lives independently from the wishes of the husband .Or  the wishes of the family of her deceased husband ..example: leaving his home immediately after his death...

During this period, the widow mourns /pays respect to the dead husband together with his family,children and sort the situation.... Once the waiting period is over, no one, from either her family or that of her deceased husband, has the right to dictate to her what to do with her life. She is totally free to decide for herself. She is free to receive marriage proposals, and to give her consent to marrying anyone she chooses, unimpeded by any antiquated or unreasonable traditions or customs. She has only God to please and fear. For: "God is aware of all that you do."

it is a fact all over many traditions that women are oppressed/pressurised/maltreated/...more than men.
GOD bless you.
Peace.
TOTAL LOYALTY TO GOD ALONE.   IN GOD I TRUST
38:65″ Say:? I warn you; There is no other god beside GOD, the One, the Supreme.?
[url="https://total-loyalty-to-god-alone.co.uk/?p=28"]https://total-loyalty-to-god-alone.co.uk/?p=28[/url]