"cite him (i.e. each individual) with some of it (the murder, which they were disputing in)"
The Arabic for "cite him" and "cite each individual" is very different.
Even in English "cite him" can never mean "cite each individual".
"forgive him" can't mean "forgive each individual"
"pay him" can't mean "pay each individual"
Using your methodology any sentence can be re-interpreted as anything. Let's change every verb that has a singular possessive pronoun to mean "each individual".
You would have to use "kul" = each, or look at the construction of 2:76 بَعْضُهُمْ إِلَىٰ بَعْضٍ
meaning "one another". There are many other examples
http://openburhan.net/ob.php?word=%D8%A8%D8%B9%D8%B6%D9%87%D9%85 نظر بعضهم إلى بعض
Look at each other
وأقبل بعضهم على بعض
Turn to one another
18:19 ليتساءلوا بينهم
Question one another
For you interpretation to work;
a) Give me the Arabic using an object pronoun on the verb for when you want to cite one person?
b) Show me another verse in the Quran where a singular masculine possessive pronoun is used to imply an action of the verb on multiple people?
Finally we get to your achilles heel. When I asked you for a Qurqanic example for what you are claiming in 2:73 you didn't provide any and now you say the above. So, let's be clear, for your interpretation to work the Quran text we have must be wrong.
How is it my Achilles heel if I clearly stated it's
off-topic, criticizing all such analysis when nobody can even be sure of which text out of the 30 odd versions is the correct one. We may find a version that say la udribuhunna in 4:34 and that would make both of us look silly.
If 4:34 never existed I bet you'd never have re-translated the cat-2 verses. Think about that.
Now we come to the crux of the matter. You have inserted a baseless claim into the Arabic to make your rendition work. In Arabic, like probably all languages, a pronoun is used as a reference to something/someone discussed in the past/context. To give any credibility to your claim you will have to provide at least one similar example in Quran wherein it uses a pronoun to clearly refer to an unmentioned object in the past context, i.e. without which the sentence wouldn't make sense.
Who said it's unmentioned. What an odd thing to say. A murder usually results in a dead body.
What if I produce an example, it won't change your mind. I think I've posted enough for people to make up their own mind.