The word "prison" in the qur'an

[good logic]

Peace Ju5.

I explained "Iktau Aydyahuma" the way it makes sense in the verse. Qoran set precedents and defines its own context.
Your explanation is not logical nor makes sense.
Here is a small example;
"cut the hand" can be from a small cut like a graze to completely severe the hand( I cut my hand shaving is also clear Arabic but it does not mean I severed my hand completely?). Which one is it in 5:38? Or are you going to use your common sense without given instruction? That will be your justice not Qoran s!!!!
You cannot and will not be able to explain how to do it according to 5:38, because it is an idiom.
If you still won t see it, then you are making up your own understanding and you know it.
Thank you and GOD bless you.
Peace.

[The Sardar]

- The qur'an is not a source to show that it is an idiom as it is not clear, and i am asking for an external source. Do you have any source else than the qur'an showing cut the hands can be used as an idiom in old arabic

Salam don't know this helps but check Lisan Al-Arab, Maqayis Al-Lughah or Kitab Al-Ayn.

[The Sardar]

If it is not slavery what it is? It is even the same in the bible, from the same story. You could say its prison and not slavery. But you have no proof of that. In fact it is not even clear and you want to take that as a commandmant from allah while it is a story  of the past.

Maybe this could answer it. Read onwards of 12:79 to 12:102, you will see in 12:102, speaks about an revelation from the unseen news.

[The Sardar]

Also you said:  "It is even the same in the bible, from the same story" May i ask where in the bible does it speak about the story?

[Ju5]

Peace Ju5.

I explained "Iktau Aydyahuma" the way it makes sense in the verse. Qoran set precedents and defines its own context.
Your explanation is not logical nor makes sense.
Here is a small example;
"cut the hand" can be from a small cut like a graze to completely severe the hand( I cut my hand shaving is also clear Arabic but it does not mean I severed my hand completely?). Which one is it in 5:38? Or are you going to use your common sense without given instruction? That will be your justice not Qoran s!!!!
You cannot and will not be able to explain how to do it according to 5:38, because it is an idiom.
If you still won t see it, then you are making up your own understanding and you know it.
Thank you and GOD bless you.
Peace.

Then do we make small cuts like graze in 5:33? from opposites sides? or do we amputate ?Which one is it? or are you going to use your common sense without given instruction?

Now you didn't answer to these two questions so allow me to copy paste them :

- The qur'an is not a source to show that it is an idiom as it is not clear, and i am asking for an external source. Do you have any source else than the qur'an showing cut the hands can be used as an idiom in old arabic ?

- why is it used with the same terms as real physical cutting in other verses if it is a known idiom ?

[Ju5]

Maybe this could answer it. Read onwards of 12:79 to 12:102, you will see in 12:102, speaks about an revelation from the unseen news.

when is say it is not clear, i meant that it wasn't a commandmant at all, it is a story plain and simple, like noah or tamud

bible joseph story https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joseph_(Genesis)#The_silver_cup

[The Sardar]

when is say it is not clear, i meant that it wasn't a commandmant at all, it is a story plain and simple, like noah or tamud

Are you sure? Because in 12:102 it says:

12:102 ذلك من انباء الغيب نوحيه اليك وما كنت لديهم اذ اجمعوا امرهم وهم يمكرون
Thalika min anba-i alghaybinooheehi ilayka wama kunta ladayhim ithajmaAAoo amrahum wahum yamkuroona
That is from the news of the unseen that We inspire to you. You were not among them when they arranged their plan and were scheming.

Don't think it's just a story, they mean something.

[The Sardar]

bible joseph story https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joseph_(Genesis)#The_silver_cup

Also i don't remember anything about silver cup in Quran. Unless i missed it, please show the verses mentioning silver cup with Joseph in Quran.

[good logic]

Peace Ju5.
You are stuck with how to cut the hand/s aren t you?
You are looking for excuses if you keep insisting on your way.Also it is irrelevant what you are asking, it does not matter whether idioms like it exist or not. The verse makes sense only as an idiom.
Look here at 12:31:
فَلَمّا سَمِعَت بِمَكرِهِنَّ أَرسَلَت إِلَيهِنَّ وَأَعتَدَت لَهُنَّ مُتَّكَـًٔا وَءاتَت كُلَّ وٰحِدَةٍ مِنهُنَّ سِكّينًا وَقالَتِ اخرُج عَلَيهِنَّ فَلَمّا رَأَينَهُ أَكبَرنَهُ وَقَطَّعنَ أَيدِيَهُنَّ وَقُلنَ حٰشَ لِلَّهِ ما هٰذا بَشَرًا إِن هٰذا إِلّا مَلَكٌ كَريمٌ
How did these ladies "cut their hands"? Did they make a small graze or  severed their hands completely?

You are wasting your time arguing a clear case of "You do not know any details of how to cut the hand/s in 5:38".
  No matter what you say, Qoran has not given any command of "cutting hands" otherwise it would have specified how and with what.
GOD bless you.
Peace.

[The Sardar]

You may say "this is the more intense verb form". "The first verb form is used in 5:38, and not the second." Well the first verb form is also used in 69:46 :


Then We would have cut from him the aorta.

This is intense enough.

Actually in Quranix.org the word faiqtaAAoo (فاقطعوا) is in second person masculine plural imperative verb while in 69:46 the word laqataAAna (لقطعنا) is in first person plural perfect verb. I don't know if this is something different since my grammar knowledge is poor. Wakas, you have a good knowledge on Quranic Arabic grammar, could you tell us if there is a difference?