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The bible corrupted?

Started by farati, February 11, 2017, 06:31:31 AM

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owlwithbow

Quote from: farati on February 11, 2017, 06:31:31 AM
Hello,

I have a question. Does the Quran say that the previous scriptures are corrupted? If yes, then why  the Quran instruct to refer to them?
Also, the dead sea scrolls show there is little difference between the bible today and the one that is 2000 years old.

This article confused me a lot.:

https://wikiislam.net/wiki/Corruption_of_Previous_Scriptures_(Qur'an_2:79)

You have to investigate the Originals. Dont even try to prove your point with translations.

The Injeel is written in Greek. And the Zabur and Tawrat are written in Hebrew.

The Injeel and the Tawrat were there in the lifetime of Mohammad, and he even told he people to uphold them. See the Quran 5:68, 5:43, 5:47.

So why would God keep the Tawrat for more then thousands of years? And why would He keep the Injeel for like 600 years? If they were there until the lifetime of Mohammad, then why would they suddenly change in the last 1400 years since the Quran?

The problem is that if you tell something enough of times, people will start believing it. The Sunni people gain a lot if they keep people from the previous Scriptures. And so do the Catholic gain a lot to keep the people from the Quran. And so do the Pharisees gain a lot if they keep the Jewish people from the Injeel.

The Quran confirmed them. Read 3:3, 5:43, 5:46, 5:68.

So who are you with your desires?
One God, many different Messengers, but One Message.

huruf

The part of the Bible that is lknown as the old testament might hve been written originally in wht is called hebrew, but the fact is that we do not have those writings. What has reached us in hebrew and aramaic are the masoretic texts which are themselves translations from the greek septuagint old testament version done Alexandria under Ptolomeo II Philadelfo in 284-246 b. C. So there is no originalhebrew text tht can be ressorted to. The oldest thing at hand is that Septuagint greek version. To resort to the hebrew implies to resort to a trnslation of a rnasltion, or rather of a version, since th setuagint itself is not merely a translation but a version with soemthings dded or modified. The text fromwhich the greek septuagint was made seems were destroyed in some fire.

So no originl hebrew is there to check, which indeed would be interesting, alsoif they were the original which we do notknow even to what extent the texts extant at the time of Ptolomeo II were the very originals without modification.

Salaam 

owlwithbow

Quote from: huruf on December 31, 2017, 12:52:36 PM
The part of the Bible that is lknown as the old testament might hve been written originally in wht is called hebrew, but the fact is that we do not have those writings. What has reached us in hebrew and aramaic are the masoretic texts which are themselves translations from the greek septuagint old testament version done Alexandria under Ptolomeo II Philadelfo in 284-246 b. C. So there is no originalhebrew text tht can be ressorted to. The oldest thing at hand is that Septuagint greek version. To resort to the hebrew implies to resort to a trnslation of a rnasltion, or rather of a version, since th setuagint itself is not merely a translation but a version with soemthings dded or modified. The text fromwhich the greek septuagint was made seems were destroyed in some fire.

So no originl hebrew is there to check, which indeed would be interesting, alsoif they were the original which we do notknow even to what extent the texts extant at the time of Ptolomeo II were the very originals without modification.

Salaam

The Old Testament is written in Hebrew and little parts of it are in Aramaic, and yes we have those writings and they are all around the globe in Hebrew Synagoges and i myself also have a copy.

What is your evidence that the Hebrew/Aramaic Old Testament we have now are changed and are actually translations from the Greek Septuagint? Do you know that the Septuagint is a Greek translation made from the Hebrew/Aramaic Old Testament? Do you think that the Hebrew/Aramaic Old Testament was lost after the Greek septuagint translation was made from the Hebrew/Aramaic Original Old Testament?

So if you say that there was no Hebrew/Aramaic Old Testament anymore in 284 b.c., then why does the Injeel in many places confirm the Tora, Zabur, any many other Scriptures from the Old Testament in like 100 a.d., and then why does the Quran confirm that there was one in like 600 +/- a.d.? Read 5:43 and 5:46, 47, 68 of the Quran for evidence.

So my question to you is, do you believe that the Quran confirmed the Tora and the Zabur and the Injeel? In places like 5:43 and 5:47. Or do you believe a narration that tells you that there is no Tora and Zabur anymore?

Do you understand that the prophet himself when we read 5:68 told the people to uphold the Tora and the Injeel? Or do you think that God asked Mohammad to do something that couldn't be accomplished? Christians and Jews will have a good laugh when reading that the Quran actually confirms the Scriptures that they try to follow.
One God, many different Messengers, but One Message.

huruf

What is my proof that there was a President of the United Sttes Jefferson?.

For God's ake it is about the most basic thinginBible kknowledge. Find out it is not difficult. You do not need "my" proof.
The Qur'an does not seakabout any OLd Testament.

Salaam

owlwithbow

Quote from: huruf on December 31, 2017, 01:39:23 PM
What is my proof that there was a President of the United Sttes Jefferson?.

For God's ake it is about the most basic thinginBible kknowledge. Find out it is not difficult. You do not need "my" proof.
The Qur'an does not seakabout any OLd Testament.

Salaam

I edited my post. Can you read it again please?

And you said, the Quran does not seek any Old Testament? Can you explain to me what is written in 5:43 and 5:47 and 5:68?
One God, many different Messengers, but One Message.

huruf

Thishas been aqasked and answered hundreds of times in this forum and may be millions in other fora. You can triy to look those up. I really cannot undertake to answer that once more.

I am not trying to convince you of anything. I am sure you aare old enough and intelligent enough to look aafter yourself.

Salaam

owlwithbow

Quote from: huruf on December 31, 2017, 02:22:39 PM
Thishas been aqasked and answered hundreds of times in this forum and may be millions in other fora. You can triy to look those up. I really cannot undertake to answer that once more.

I am not trying to convince you of anything. I am sure you aare old enough and intelligent enough to look aafter yourself.

Salaam

So you don't want to explain what's written in the Quran in verse 5:43, 5:47 and 5:68? So you claim something, but tell me to search for answers somewhere else?
One God, many different Messengers, but One Message.