@Reee
1) Putting a person in a status of impurity doesn?t necessarily mean that God is being evil. Humans urinate and we are supposed to clean ourselves after this, by your logic, God is being evil by putting as in a state of impurity when we urinate.
Menstruations have a purpose and the process simply puts the women in a state of ?impurity?.
2) I am pretty sure menstruations was something dealt with since the Egyptian time and that there were safeguards in place that would prevent blood from running down women?s legs
@ManOfFaith
Decently intelligent people will also know that urine is considered a disinfectant and we have come to a point where many use it for cleansing purposes, yet common sense dictates that you clean yourself once you urinate. I know menstruations are the release of major nutrients and like urination, even what comes out as a result of menstruation is not impure. However, is the state that puts the person in a position that they shouldn?t be praying.
@hawk, like wakas said, there?s no explicit order about this and I agree but as I explained in my second post, one thing doesn?t necessarily be told explicitly in order for it to be forbidden or allowed, Quran seems to provide different methods and one is where two or more sets of verses, each providing a rule, if put together give birth to other set of rule/s.
In this scenario I?m referring to the link between the verse [5:6] and [2:222]
@Wakas
1) Yes, like I said in the second post, [2:222] it is an instruction to the men about abstaining from intercourse with menstruating women
2) I assume you?re saying that it doesn?t use the word impure and so I shouldn?t be using it; it states ?until they are cleansed/purified? , what do you think is their state before they are purified/cleansed? I believe is impure.
3) ?
4) Yes I am, I have stated that in my second post by putting it in brackets and saying that is my personal opinion adding the recitation/touching the Quran while impure using the verse [5:6] of the Quran. However, if it makes it easier to understand the real topic, then please ignore that section and simply focus on the praying section, which is stated in the verse.
Like I said earlier, if something isn?t said explicitly, doesn?t mean it?s not forbidden or allowed. Verse [2:222] doesn?t explicitly say not to have intercourse, yet this seems to be a view many agree on.
In my opinion, the verse [2:222] provides two sets of info:
- It tells the reader that men shouldn?t approach women during this period (by that I mean not have intercourse)
- It tells the reader that women during this period are not pure(not in a bad way for those who are going to attack this)
The second piece of info (about the state of women), to me can be linked to the verse [5:6], which tells the reader that a person should purify themselves before they stand up for prayer.