Quote from: abdalquran on October 06, 2012, 05:34:16 PM
These measures are subjectively percieved.
Thanks for making clear your view is based on subjective measures. So, let us recap, you declared I was incorrect, yet openly admit your view is based on subjective measures - thus, can one, according to you, declare another to be wrong based on their own subjective measures? A simple yes/no will suffice.
It seems the more we discuss, the more it seems you contradict your own alleged aims.
Quote
How is this Quranic exactly? Does the Quran declare any word to be a noun or a verb? What makes this reasoning Quranic?
I would prefer if you phrased your question in one succinct manner, but in any case.... "Quranic" as I already defined "of/from or pertaining to The Quran" is rather self-explanatory. If my answer is from/of Quran, then it is "Quranic". For example, if you ask someone "what is zakat" and the person replies with references from Traditional Hadith, then the person's answer is not "Quranic". If the person replies citing all occurrences of zakat in Quran then his answer is "Quranic".
The Quran does not declare a word to be a noun or verb etc just like the following sentence does not either, yet it contains noun and verb: Jim walked to the shops and bought a Pepsi to drink later.
As far as I'm aware, all languages in the world have nouns and verbs, but perhaps you know something I do not. If so, please enlighten us.
If you are uncomfortable using the terms "noun" and "verb" then we can simply use "the way in which the word is used", i.e. if someone says it is a "doing word / action" in this occurrence but the same word form is not a "doing word / action" elsewhere, then one may expect that person to provide a reason for this, if they can.
If you are happy for someone to use the exact same word differently in any occurrence, without reason/evidence, or nouns/verbs do not exist in Quran, then simply state so for all to see.