Peace everyone
(This topic is a refutation against the notion that we should only /pray/read the Quran in Arabic.)
Now the notion that might be in the so called "Muslim circle" is that you have to pray in Arabic, or read the Quran in Arabic, or that the Arabic language is better to use than other language.
This notion does not hold basis or roots in the Quran and here is why:
There are many narrations and prayers in the Quran (i.e Abraham praying (14:35), Moses praying (20:25), Jesus Praying (5:114), ZakarYAH doing his salat 3:39)... etc).
Now the Question is, did these people speak Arabic? No!
Well how come in the Quran, they do speak Arabic?
Obviously what must have been done was that there prayers/narrations were
TRANSLATED from their original languages that they spoke, respectively, into the Arabic Language.
This means that some of what we have in the Quran, is not the original, but a translation!Yet God Almighty tells us that the Quran is a truthful narration! (3:62).
Well if that's so, This has to mean that
it does not matter what language was used, and what really matter was the MEANING of the words that were said!
Thus If it was good enough for God Almighty to use translations, and also state that was the truth (3:62), then it is good enough for us to use translations of prayers/the Quran, in whatever language and try to convey their MEANING.
Moreover, God Almighty cited to us that Even if the Quran was revealed in whatever language, people would have still complained, why didn't it's verses be explained?
And the after-comment to this complaint is that Arabic and Non-Arabic, it is a guidance and healing for the BELIEVERS. (41:44)
Thus Again, the importance was laid upon the
MEANING of the words, or what they convey, and not the Language itself!
God Almighty cited to us that he did not send any messenger
except in the language of his people to Explain to them (14:4). Thus If the Arabs spoke any other language, the Quran was going to be in that language, in order for the Prophet to try to explain to them (also 19:97, 44:58), because they did not get a warner before him (32:3).
(If this notion is brought up, that we should pray in Arabic, or read the Quran in Arabic, or that the Arabic language is better to use than other language, ask the advocator, did Abraham, Moses, ZakarYAH, and so and so, in the Quran Pray in Arabic? Then Why does God Almighty cite to us them speaking in the Arabic Language?
Is this not an obvious translation? Thus
If it was good enough for God Almighty to use translations, and also state that was the truth (3:62),
then it is good enough for us to use translations of prayers/the Quran, in whatever language and try to convey their MEANING.)