Peace all.
I'd like to discuss a general idea here. Behind every Qur'anic law is a reason; a "spirit of the law," if you will. It prohibits theft, because deprivation of property hurts the owner of that property. It requires the use of 4 witnesses for lewdness because such a stigma on a would-be offender should only be attached after a substantial evidential requirement has been met.
But, in keeping with the spirit of each law, may the actual letter of the law be "overturned" (I hate to use that word here but I cannot think of a better one) when different exigencies (time/technology/etc.) allow for it? Or would that be presumptuous of us? For example, with the aid of videocameras, it is possible that lewdness can be physically caught on tape; are 4 witnesses still required? Would it not be keeping with the spirit of the law, would the substantial 4-witness requirement not be met, with the use of videotape? Or would this be a case of us assuming we know 100% the reason for the law (something, perhaps, only God knows)?
This question hit me when I was reading something by Parwez. In reference to the 2 female witness requirement for financial transactions in 2:282, Parwez stated the below (I highlighted the part I think is most relevant, for emphasis):
As far as the question of two women in lieu of a man is concerned, the Quran itself has explained the reason; i.e., if one woman forgets or is confused, the other shall remind her. This clarifies two points:
i) Firstly that in that period the women were such (due to illiteracy) that they were not able to describe their own case properly (43:18) and that it was seldom that a chance arose for them to take part in the collective affairs; it was not unexpected of them to get confused before a court of law.
ii) Secondly the need for a second woman arose only when the first one got confused and forgot. If the first woman remained free of confusion and forgetfulness, the second woman could neither interfere nor her testimony was needed.
This fully explains that, in fact, two women are not appearing as separate witnesses; one would suffice provided she does not suffer confusion in the court.
It makes clear that women are not considered unreliable as against men on the basis of being women. It is only the special conditions that are kept in view. When such conditions remain no more, the testimony of one man and one woman shall be considered equally trustworthy.
Do you agree with him? Why, or why not? Once those special conditions (in this case, a general knowledge by women, of financial transactions) no longer exist, does this 2 female rule no longer exist by the letter, but rather in spirit?
Peace all.