Dear all,
MH has done a great job, but I can not find that the conclusion is beyond doubt.
(If I understood your conclusion correctly)
That a Messenger is sent, and when the message is delivered the Messenger becomes a Prophet, does not fit with 22:52 which talks about ?any Messenger nor (wa laa) Prophet?, indicating that these are two different things from the start.
However, if I try a theory to the effect that:
- A Prophet is automatically a Messenger, but a Messenger is not necessarily a Prophet -, it seems to fit, throughout the verses of the Qur?an, or am I biased?
??.Send amongst them a Messenger of their own???..?(2:129)
??.We have sent among you a Messenger of your own?.?(2:151)
??.a Messenger from among themselves????????(3:164)
??.We have sent among every Ummah a Messenger??.?(16:36)
?And for every Ummah, there is a Messenger?????.?(10:47)
Can we conclude that Messengers are ?from the people? and ?for the people? of any, and all, nations, communities, or Ummah?
Prophets are not mentioned in this way, only from, or for, specific communities, or groups.
As mentioned earlier, I used to be of the opinion that 33:40 said ?good bye? to both Prophets and Messengers, but have a feeling that I was wrong, and that Prophets are gone, but not the Messengers.
I would greatly appreciate if anyone could put me straight on this, and that we could all come to a common conclusion, based on undeniable facts from the Qur?an.
Best regards
Ali Omar
MH has done a great job, but I can not find that the conclusion is beyond doubt.
(If I understood your conclusion correctly)
That a Messenger is sent, and when the message is delivered the Messenger becomes a Prophet, does not fit with 22:52 which talks about ?any Messenger nor (wa laa) Prophet?, indicating that these are two different things from the start.
However, if I try a theory to the effect that:
- A Prophet is automatically a Messenger, but a Messenger is not necessarily a Prophet -, it seems to fit, throughout the verses of the Qur?an, or am I biased?
??.Send amongst them a Messenger of their own???..?(2:129)
??.We have sent among you a Messenger of your own?.?(2:151)
??.a Messenger from among themselves????????(3:164)
??.We have sent among every Ummah a Messenger??.?(16:36)
?And for every Ummah, there is a Messenger?????.?(10:47)
Can we conclude that Messengers are ?from the people? and ?for the people? of any, and all, nations, communities, or Ummah?
Prophets are not mentioned in this way, only from, or for, specific communities, or groups.
As mentioned earlier, I used to be of the opinion that 33:40 said ?good bye? to both Prophets and Messengers, but have a feeling that I was wrong, and that Prophets are gone, but not the Messengers.
I would greatly appreciate if anyone could put me straight on this, and that we could all come to a common conclusion, based on undeniable facts from the Qur?an.
Best regards
Ali Omar