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How do rational Muslims (those Muslims who don't believe in miracles and explain them rationally, like Mufti Abu Layth) explain the following miracles:

• Prophet Musa's staff consuming magicians' conjurations (Qur'an 26:45) (I know they think the magic tricks were all just illusions, but then why would the magicians suddenly believe in Allah if what they did were just magic tricks?)
• Prophet Sulaiman and the spring of liquid copper (Qur'an 34:12)
• Prophet Sulaiman spoke to birds (Qur'an 27:22 and 38:19)
• Prophet Yaqub's clothes curing his father's blindness (Qur'an 12:93)
• Prophet Uzair died for 100 years and was revived (Qur'an 2:259)
• The dwellers of the cave slept for years (Qur'an 18:11) (How do you explain that they survived for years without food and water? The Qur'an is very clear that they slept for years).

Even if polygyny were allowed only to help orphans, why would you need to marry the mothers of the orphans in order to help them? Why can't you just help them without having to marry their mothers?

Is verse 2:62 referring to people of the Book before Muhammad or contemporary to Muhammad?

Is this the correct translation?

"Indeed the faithful, the Jews, the Christians, and the Sabaeans —those of them who have faith in Allah and the Last Day and act righteously— they shall have their reward near their Lord, and they will have no fear, nor will they grieve."

Or is it this one?

"Indeed, those who believed and those who were Jews or Christians or Sabeans - those [among them] who believed in Allah and the Last Day and did righteousness - will have their reward with their Lord, and no fear will there be concerning them, nor will they grieve."

The Quran says it was a "fish". But the only sea creature that could possibly do something like that is a whale, which is not a fish. So is this a mistake in the Quran or is the word "hut" in Arabic referring to a sea creature in general, rather than a fish as we understand today?

["Is it they who distribute your Lord's mercy? We ˹alone˺ have distributed their ˹very˺ livelihood among them in this worldly life and raised some of them in rank above others so that some may employ others in service. ˹But˺ your Lord's mercy is far better than whatever ˹wealth˺ they amass." [43:32]]

"Is it they who distribute your Lord's mercy? We ˹alone˺ have distributed their ˹very˺ livelihood among them in this worldly life and raised some of them in rank above others so that some may employ others in service. ˹But˺ your Lord's mercy is far better than whatever ˹wealth˺ they amass." [43:32]


Is this verse implying that social inequalities are God's will? Reading other verses it seemed to me that it's human beings who create injustice in this world. Or am I misunderstanding verse 43:32?

Peace.

I will just leave this interesting video here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5jbve_GeAdI

Peace.

I found this interpretation of verse 4:3, but I don't really know if it makes sense to me ---> https://thefatalfeminist.com/2017/12/18/polygamy-is-haraam/

What do you think?

I see the translation of أَرَادُوا is "they wish". But who is "they"?

1) Two males?
2) Three or more males?
3) Two people (male and female)?
4) Three or more people (males and females)?

[avoid]

According to Lane's lexicon:

"Daad-Ra-Ba = to heal, strike, propound as an example, put forth a parable, go, make a journey, travel, mix, avoid, take away, put a cover, shut, mention/declare/state, propound, set forth, compare, liken, seek a way, march on, set, impose, prevent, fight, traffic with anyone's property for a share in the profit, he made or caused to be or constituted, leave/forsake, take away thing (with 'an)."

Can idribuhunna in 4:34 be translated as "avoid them"?

I've just finished reading about studies that show how shame of nudity is due to social conditioning.
So why does the Qur'an tell us to dress modestly if it has no real purpose?

[as a privilege given only to you and not to those who acknowledge]

O prophet, We have made lawful for you the wives to whom you have already given their dowry, and the one who is committed to you by oath, as granted to you by God, and the daughters of your father's brothers, and the daughters of your father's sisters, and the daughters of your mother's brothers, and the daughters of your mother's sisters, of whom they have emigrated with you. Also, the acknowledging woman who had decreed herself to the prophet, the prophet may marry her if he wishes, as a privilege given only to you and not to those who acknowledge. We have already decreed their rights in regard to their spouses and those who are still dependants. This is to spare you any hardship. God is Forgiver, Compassionate.
[33:50]

No women are lawful to you beyond this, nor that you change them for other wives, even though you may be attracted by their beauty, except those to whom you are committed by oaths. God is watchful over all things. [33:52]

1) Regular people can marry those women too, then why was it a privilege?
2) Does 33:52 mean that if he had, say, 1 wife and 1 woman to whom he was committed by oaths he could change the latter but not the former? If so, why?

Salam.

Why do we perform ghusl only after sexual intercourse?
I saw many people on this forum claim that janabah only refers to impurity due to sexual intercourse, but when I read 4:43 and 5:6 my understanding is different.

O you who have believed, do not approach prayer while you are intoxicated until you know what you are saying or in a state of janabah, except those passing through, until you have washed. And if you are ill or on a journey or one of you comes from the place of relieving himself or you have contacted women and find no water, then seek clean earth and wipe over your faces and your hands. Indeed, Allah is ever Pardoning and Forgiving. [4:43]

O you who have believed, when you rise to [perform] prayer, wash your faces and your forearms to the elbows and wipe over your heads and wash your feet to the ankles. And if you are in a state of janabah, then purify yourselves. But if you are ill or on a journey or one of you comes from the place of relieving himself or you have contacted women and do not find water, then seek clean earth and wipe over your faces and hands with it. Allah does not intend to make difficulty for you, but He intends to purify you and complete His favor upon you that you may be grateful. [5:6]

First it says, "if you're in a state of janabah purify yourselves", then it goes on explaining what jabah is, that is illness, travelling, urinating/defecating, and having sex. The two sentences are linked.
In my own understanding, ghusl should be performed after an illness, travelling, going to the bathroom, and having sexual intercourse. So what is wrong with my understanding? Please, it's important. Thanks.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Z7ikG9gBJIE

Oh and your husband is a cuckold

Why did Salomon want to fight the Queen of Sheba if there is no compulsion in religion?

"Return to them, for we will surely come to them with soldiers that they will be powerless to encounter, and we will surely expel them therefrom in humiliation, and they will be debased." [27:37]

First of all, she was not attacking him, and even when he sent someone to tell her to come to Islam she didn't try to advance against him. So why did he have to threaten to expel them?

[become short, have little or no power, become niggardly, fall short, i.e. not to reach something, left/relinquish/abstain/desist/cease, took from its length, clip/shove, restricted/confined/limited, kept within certain bounds or limits, restrain/withheld, hinder/prevent, contract or draw oneself together, obedient, last part of day. qasr (pl. qusur) - ample and spacious house, castle, palace.]

Please help me understand these verses. I don't speak Arabic but I was trying to read the original version and there are things I don't understand.

• In 2:25 it's talking about the rewards in Heaven. "And they will have therein purified spouses, and they will abide therein eternally." The word "spouses" is "azwajun" and it's masculine, but the word "purified" is "muṭahharatun" and it's feminine! How is that possible?
• In 2:35 "And We said, "O Adam, dwell, you and your wife, in Paradise and eat therefrom in [ease and] abundance from wherever you will."
  The word "wife" is "wazawjuka" and it's masculine! Adam's wife was a female!
• The same thing happens in 4:57 "For them therein are purified spouses" where "spouses" is masculine and "purified" is feminine.
• In 37:48 "And with them will be women limiting [their] glances, with large, [beautiful] eyes". I don't understand why Quran Corpus says that both qasiratu and l-tarfi have the same meaning, that is "(will be) companions of modest gaze". Qasiratu is FEMININE, and l-tarfi is MASCULINE. Also, qasiratu comes from the root qaf sad ra which means = become short, have little or no power, become niggardly, fall short, i.e. not to reach something, left/relinquish/abstain/desist/cease, took from its length, clip/shove, restricted/confined/limited, kept within certain bounds or limits, restrain/withheld, hinder/prevent, contract or draw oneself together, obedient, last part of day. qasr (pl. qusur) - ample and spacious house, castle, palace.
  And l-tarfi comes from ta-ra-fa = soft, ease, to lead a delicate life, enjoy good things of life, to bestow the good things of life.
  Luxuriant/flourishing/succulent/plentifulness.
  Corrupted, well to do, ungrateful, proud, one whom a life of softness and ease has caused to behave insolently, one whom the exclusive pursuit of pleasures of life has corrupted.
  How did they come up with that translation? Where did they take the word companions/wives from? Where did they take the word "glance" from?
• In 38:52 it's basically the same as above. "And with them will be women limiting [their] glances and of equal age" Of equal age is "atrabun", which is masculine! 
• In 55:56 it's the same but it also says "no man has touched them". Is man intended as "human being"? If it were intended as "male human being" than it would mean that the companions are only women. But l-tarfi is masculine.
• In 55:72 " Fair ones restrained in pavilions". Why are they restrained? Why is "fair ones" (hurun) gender neutral and "restrained" (maqsuratun) feminine?
• In 56:35-36-37 "Indeed, We have produced the women of Paradise in a [new] creation, and made them virgins, devoted and of equal age". Why is the word "virgin" (abkaran) feminine, "devoted" (uruban) masculine, and "equals in age" (atraban) masculine? If these are all the attributes of women of Paradise then shouldn't they all be feminine adjectives?
• Finally, out of 11 cases(I didn't count the verses about boys with cups and vessels because those are servants and from what I understand they are too young to be spouses), only two cases are clearly gender neutral. All the rest seem to be about women of Paradise. Why does it focus so much on women rather than men?

Could anyone who knows Arabic explain each verse in detail?
Please, don't go off-topic.
Thanks!