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The Forgery of Significations

Started by uq, March 28, 2013, 04:40:44 PM

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uq

Peace,

As humans, we are unique amongst earthly creatures in our capacity to speak. The formulation of statements from a number of independent sounds proceeding from our mouths to express an idea conceived in the mind can only be described as miraculous.

These sounds are expressed by humans in reference to objects, or ideas, or events. These sounds only acquire meaning by the repetitive appellation of those sounds to the same objects, or ideas, or events.

We call these sounds ?words.?

A listener will have to hear these words in use by people enough times, and in as many different situations, from which he can derive a firm idea of their meaning. I say ?listener,? because language proceeds primarily from speech, secondarily from writing.

In human history, dictionaries are a relatively modern invention, which list the entire set of words that constitute any given language. They are particularly useful to foreign students of a given language if they haven?t had any first-hand experience with the people of that language. Indeed, their use, along with the rules of grammar, is a prerequisite for the correct understanding of that language.

In the science of linguistics, ?words? are usually referred to as ?signifiers,? and ?meanings? are usually referred to as ?significations.?

Now comes my question, upon being presented with a text whose signifiers are, for the most part, unknown to the reader, would it behove that reader, in the objective pursuit of truth, to employ significations in the understanding of that text as were employed by those people who authored that text?

Or, would it behove that reader to forge significations of those signifiers as accords with his own personal fancies in order to acquire the intended significations of those people who authored that text?

I would argue the prior to be behoving.

The very fact that you, the reader, are reading this post and understanding it, is proof enough of my argument. The fact that you, the reader, are not seeking to invent new meanings for these words that I am using to write this post, proves that we must understand language as it exists at the time of its currency.

Brothers and sisters, we are not at liberty to invent meanings for words.

I have heard the arguments that zinā does not mean fornication, and that nisā? does not mean women, and that salāh does not mean prayer. These arguments, in my view, are invalid. I will say the following about these arguments:

1. I accept that the meanings of words are liable to mutate. That is a most natural phenomenon of human speech, undoubtedly. However, we must use the Quran?s Arabic, from the Quran's time, to understand the Quran, not any other dialect or language. Example: at one point in history, the signifier ?man? referred to any human being, male, or female. Later, around 1000 years ago, it became exclusive to males.

2. I also accept that the Quran uses old words in new ways to introduce new concepts, or perhaps to modify existing concepts; but this can only occur to such an extent that the new concept can still relate to its original signification. Example: ?shirk? originally meant ?apportionment.? However, the Quran uses it in such a way that it can lead us to understand the signification as ?polytheism/idolisation.?

Naturally, all the above is just as applicable to syntax.

I truly apologise and seek pardon for the blatant rudimentary nature of my statements about language and its use, but the arguments that are in circulation in this forum, and, sadly, among other Quranists, with regard to the forgery of significations, are also invalid on such a rudimentary level.

For stress, we are not at liberty to invent meanings for Classical Arabic words to understand the Quran.
uq

Azz

Quote from: uq on March 28, 2013, 04:40:44 PM
and that salāh does not mean prayer.

I've seriously never heard anyone argue otherwise, though I wouldn't be surprised if some people did.

I agree with what youpoint about not inventing word meanings - we shouldn't be trying to fit the Qur'an to what we want it to fit. However...you know you're gonna have to specifically explain further the points about zina and nisa, right? There's been a huge amount of discussion on those topics on these forums with some relatively convincing (in my opinion anyway) views expressed on them that are contrary to what you're saying.

Peace.

abdalquran

Wow, I love this discussion. Azz, I'm about to argue otherwise :P

How do you know when Classical Arabic as we know it was formulated?
Farouk A. Peru

GODsubmitter

There are some "words", or better said some Scriptures that point to the silence, they direct man to the "zero-point" where one, if dignified enough and deserving, can "hear" God.

Those "words", those Scriptures, serve the purpose to shut up and stop the inner chatter or inside monologue and erase the clatter of individual and subjective verbiage, and point to the Sacral Silence where one could hear the Word of God.

By the way, the "subconscious" knows all the languages!
God has no Religion!

God is running everything.

Peace begins with me.

Wakas

peace uq,

I agree with the gist of what you are saying, however I would add one important clarification, and that is: for whatever meaning/signification of a word is chosen one should ensure that it actually fits within The Quran using it's internal cross-reference,  grammar, logic and practical considerations.


It is very rare to find someone present an unconventional meaning of a word coupled with comprehensive Quranic research for their choice. In fact, I would go as far as to say the lack of evidence is frequently woeful.


Background:
http://www.quran434.com/study-method.html
All information in my posts is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should seek knowledge and verify: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11. [url="http://mypercept.co.uk/articles/"]My articles[/url]

[url="//www.studyquran.org"]www.studyQuran.org[/url]

uq

Peace Wakas,

Yes, I agree.

I think that in most of those cases, the argument doesn't add up, neither by Quranic cross-reference, nor by Classical Arabic syntax/vocab.

I only grant the plasticity of significations where there is a sizeable body of Quranic or syntactical evidence to support it.

Otherwise, I find the practice of the intentional forgery of significations, by a person who is sane and educated, tantamount to telling lies about God.

"For whom is more unjust than the one who has invented lies about God?"

God save us from error.
uq

abdalquran


So uq, this means that you accepted the authority of the dictionary with no critique whatever? Why is the dictionary the default authority?
Farouk A. Peru

huruf

Quote from: abdalquran on March 28, 2013, 07:17:28 PM
Wow, I love this discussion. Azz, I'm about to argue otherwise :P

How do you know when Classical Arabic as we know it was formulated?



That is a question that I would also crave to have an answer to.

Salaam

abdalquran


Few ppl have the honesty to engage with this question. Instead thry prefer to swallow dictionaries in place of hadith
Farouk A. Peru

Mazhar

The Word: it converts Abstract Realm into Physical Realm


We live in the world of Words. We listen Words, thereby we speak Words. We see how words are written; thereby we write words with our hand. These are all apparent activity. Our non apparent world-Abstract Realm is also but Words. We silently think by Words, we ponder by Words, we reflect by Words. We arrive at  conclusions, decisions and thoughts which are but Words. We see and perceive with eyes closed all by Words. Word is not only all around us but inwardly in every cell of us. Minus Word, We cease to exist. The moment we listen not Word, speak word, read or write word, or think Word, "We" are no more cognizable to the majority. 

The Word: it converts Abstract Realm into Physical Realm

[url="http://haqeeqat.pk/index.htm"]http://haqeeqat.pk/index.htm[/url]