What did Prophet Muhammad do before Prophethood if....

[armom]

Salaam!

As we know that Prophet Muhammad was an "Ummi", he didn't know the previous scriptures. Then how did he follow the commandments of God without knowing the scriptures? 

[Novice]

How could one follow commandments of God before one receive them?

[huruf]

God's law is in the fitra, is everywhere. The revelations are reminders.
An every people has received revelations, lettered or unlettered.

Salaam

[armom]

How could one follow commandments of God before one receive them?

Salaam,
Quran is not the only scripture revealed. And he never knew he was a prophet and he will receive a new revelation.

If he was an Ummy, then that means he didn't follow the commandments of God which was in the Injeel

I mean, why would God chose someone who never read previous scriptures and obeyed God according to the previous scriptures?

[armom]

God's law is in the fitra, is everywhere. The revelations are reminders.
An every people has received revelations, lettered or unlettered.

Salaam

Salaam!

So is that mean scriptures aren't important? Because God chose someone who never read the previous scriptures. So that means he didn't know what God said in scriptures. 

[good logic]

Armom. what do you mean by "Ummi"? Do you mean he was neither Jew nor Christian?

So often these questions of yours are not straight forward.
At the time of the prophet,if one knew the Torah ,he would have been a Jew or a convert to Judaism. Similarly if one knew the Injeel they would have been a Christian or were people who came across these two religions but not necessarily followed them.
Since the prophet came across Jews and Christians in his life before he was given Qoran, he must have been aware of these scriptures but not necessarily a learned Scholar of these scriptures.
"Ummi "to me does not mean did not know past scriptures or was not aware of them. "Ummi" just means Gentile .

As for GOD s commandments, the prophet was brought up by people who were doing salat ...etc They must have been following some kind of a religion even though it was corrupted. The prophet was instructed to follow "Millat Ibrahim Hanifa" and was given the corrected method of GOD Alone and no idolatry. i.e To dedicate the religion to GOD Alone and only follow the Authority of Qoran:
"Kul Inni Nuhitu An Aabuda Alladina Tadhuna Min Duni Allah"  This verse tells me the prophet was stopped from following idolworship like his tribe and was guided to the true path.
GOD bless you.
Peace.

[huruf]

Salaam!

So is that mean scriptures aren't important? Because God chose someone who never read the previous scriptures. So that means he didn't know what God said in scriptures. 

God says in teh Qur'an he sent warners to every people, so whatever was the Prophet's people, they did have revelation. Whether it was spread in writing or by oral transmission is not of the essence. Most peoples in the world received older revelations by oral transmission, independently that they were recorded, then or later, in writing or not.

Salaam

[tlihawa]

96:3   Read, and your Lord is the Generous One.
96:4   The One who taught by the pen.
96:5   He taught man what he did not know.

Peace

[Jafar]

As we know that Prophet Muhammad was an "Ummi", he didn't know the previous scriptures. Then how did he follow the commandments of God without knowing the scriptures? 

Vast majority of people living in 7th / 6th century are ILLITERATE of any form of scripts.
Vast majority of people living 1000 years later are still ILLITERATE of any form of scripts.
Even today, many countries are still having vast majority of their people as ILLITERATE.

Data for today:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_literacy_rate

Example of historical data of illiteracy in France.


Taking also into the account of the difficulty on producing written materials before the advent of the invention of "Printing Press".

In the 6th/7th century only very very wealthy people could have access to any form of 'holy scripture' whether it is Torah scrolls, Gospel scrolls or Book Of The Dead papiry. Torah scrolls written on lamb skin might cost $5 Million in today's currency, Book of the dead written on papirus leaf can be procured at Ancient Egyptian temple with price tag of $2 Million.

This 'fetish' towards "Holy Scripture" where God was claimed to have authored a 'book' and the importance of it for 'salvation' in afterlife, only exist within Semitic culture and tradition.
Such (ridiculous) thought was actually started by Ancient Egyptian priest.

[armom]

Vast majority of people living in 7th / 6th century are ILLITERATE of any form of scripts.
Vast majority of people living 1000 years later are still ILLITERATE of any form of scripts.
Even today, many countries are still having vast majority of their people as ILLITERATE.

Data for today:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_literacy_rate

Example of historical data of illiteracy in France.


Taking also into the account of the difficulty on producing written materials before the advent of the invention of "Printing Press".

In the 6th/7th century only very very wealthy people could have access to any form of 'holy scripture' whether it is Torah scrolls, Gospel scrolls or Book Of The Dead papiry. Torah scrolls written on lamb skin might cost $5 Million in today's currency, Book of the dead written on papirus leaf can be procured at Ancient Egyptian temple with price tag of $2 Million.

This 'fetish' towards "Holy Scripture" where God was claimed to have authored a 'book' and the importance of it for 'salvation' in afterlife, only exist within Semitic culture and tradition.
Such (ridiculous) thought was actually started by Ancient Egyptian priest.

Then how could those people know about God? We have so many materials still we are confused. Even having Quran as a miracle still we get confused many a times. Then what about those people during that time?

God says in teh Qur'an he sent warners to every people, so whatever was the Prophet's people, they did have revelation. Whether it was spread in writing or by oral transmission is not of the essence. Most peoples in the world received older revelations by oral transmission, independently that they were recorded, then or later, in writing or not.

Salaam

Salaam,
The revelation before the Quran was Injeel. So why didn't the prophet read Injeel? I mean like we are studying the Quran, then why didn't the Prophet studied Injeel? Why didn't people who knew and followed Injeel got Prophethood? 

Armom. what do you mean by "Ummi"? Do you mean he was neither Jew nor Christian?

So often these questions of yours are not straight forward.
At the time of the prophet,if one knew the Torah ,he would have been a Jew or a convert to Judaism. Similarly if one knew the Injeel they would have been a Christian or were people who came across these two religions but not necessarily followed them.
Since the prophet came across Jews and Christians in his life before he was given Qoran, he must have been aware of these scriptures but not necessarily a learned Scholar of these scriptures.
"Ummi "to me does not mean did not know past scriptures or was not aware of them. "Ummi" just means Gentile .

As for GOD s commandments, the prophet was brought up by people who were doing salat ...etc They must have been following some kind of a religion even though it was corrupted. The prophet was instructed to follow "Millat Ibrahim Hanifa" and was given the corrected method of GOD Alone and no idolatry. i.e To dedicate the religion to GOD Alone and only follow the Authority of Qoran:
"Kul Inni Nuhitu An Aabuda Alladina Tadhuna Min Duni Allah"  This verse tells me the prophet was stopped from following idolworship like his tribe and was guided to the true path.
GOD bless you.
Peace.

Salam Good Logic,
The question is very clear I think.

The word "ummi" in the dictionary means "illiterate" "not learned"

and according to Quranic description (2:78-79) it means a person who doesn't know the scriptures.

The Prophet was instructed to follow "Millat Ibrahim Hanifa" after he got the Quran. My question is why didn't he know the previous scriptures? And those who knew the previous scriptures at that time were believers and worshiper of God.

And if they followed corrupted religion then why did he got revelation and not the person who followed God's commandments?