Peace Just a Muslim
Ok let's take Sura 23:5-6. Does the koran really "Quran confirms that sexual relations can occur within marriage OR between "those who are rightfully theirs"?
now, if you hold the view that having sexual relations is confined to within the marriage then you cannot turn around and say that you can have sex 'between' with men or women who are "ma malakat aymanukum" that you are not married to. isn't this contradictory? and how do you interpret this particular verse to mean lesbian sexual relationship may it be forbidden or not? is sura 23:5-6 even addressing sexual relationship in the first place? hmmmm.....
Thanks for your post. I accept your point of difference about animals. Re marriage, my point was that Quran gives TWO options for lawful sexual relationships - in marriage AND with those your right hand possesses which I understand refers to what we in the west call "defacto" relationships, when there is a committment to being with one partner in a marriage-like relationship. There is no contradiction - in many countries both of these are legally considered to be marriage relationships - although the defacto one is usually after a specific time period, around 3 years. The de facto couple can be same sex or heterosexual, the main requirements being respect,love & caring.
Quran verses 7:80 - 8; 11:77 - 82 the Quran does condemn men lusting after other men rather than women. This seems to be in the context of forced sex / rape.
Innakum lata'toonarijaala shahwatam-min doonin-nisaaa
There are differing translations of this into English - some translate it as "lust after" and some (twist it?) to mean "practice sex with". Perhaps an Arabic speaker could comment further on the meaning of these words. I consider forced sex to be the "abomination" rather than the homosexuality.
However, the part I am unclear about is "no-one in the world has done it before ". I read another post which said this refers to "there previously did not exist a whole community" that practised homosexual rape, so I consider this could be a possible meaning, as there is clear evidence that people in societies throughout known history have practised homosexuality.
But if forced sex is the true meaning then I become unclear about "verily you practice your lusts on men instead of women" and "Oh my people it would be purer for you if you take my daughters instead". How can rape of women be any purer than the rape of men? does this mean it's ok to rape women? Why would Lot offer his daughters to be raped? This only makes sense if these verses are not referring to forced sex and if it is in fact referring to sex between males as not being acceptable. And we know that men and women are to be treated equitably in such matters so following this reasoning it does seem that Quran doesn"t support homosexuality. But ultimately if there is no rape/oppression occurring it is between God and the individuals concerned as God has given humans freedom of choice.