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Messages - Samia

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1
Sorry Sister,

It is neither a phrase, nor meaningless, nor comparative.

It is a complete nominal sentence, and perhaps the simplest one. The First Noun, definite, nominative is the Subject of Sentence. Akbaru, indefinite, nominative is the Predicate. In the nominal sentence the predicate must match/correspond in number and gender to the subject. It has the built in pronoun of third person, masculine, singular referring back to Allah, and has no comparitive complement to consider it comparative one. The Superlative and Comparative Noun in Arabic is the same, and the context exposes it whether it is superlative or comparative.

Thanks

"Akbar" is a superlative noun, not just a noun. The noun/ adjective is "kabeer". You can say "Allahu kabeer/ God is great" and this is an equational sentence. Allahu Akbar is not a complete sentence. Literally it means: God is greater...", not "God is great.
The pattern of the superlative and comparative is the same. Their usage is not. So you know that. Why, then, mix it up with an equational sentence?

2
Quranic Divinity / Re: Is this verse applicable to todays women?
« on: March 26, 2012, 05:20:41 AM »
What made you think verse 4:92 is talking about prisoners and not slaves.

I believe slavery is prohibited in the quraan. They should be freed by definition of the religion and not as a compensation for a wrong doing.
If you acquire stolen goods, you should return it. No compensation would be offered, and you may even be prosecuted.
Same thing here.
This is not about slaves, because it compensates for a crime.

3
Quranic Divinity / Re: Is this verse applicable to todays women?
« on: March 26, 2012, 04:01:50 AM »
In summary:

1- The verse is about quwama: who is quwam over whom.
2. Criteria of choosing this quwam.
3. Examples of the behaviours of two quwams.
4. Remedies when the quwam behaves beyond their obligations: "ultra vires".

4
Quranic Divinity / Re: Is this verse applicable to todays women?
« on: March 26, 2012, 03:34:42 AM »
peace Samia, all,

I meant that nisa are not necessarily the receiver directly, i.e. it is not like person A giving money to person B. It may be, but not necessarily so, as I explained. That was my point, albeit this seems a peripheral issue.


But "spending" is a condition for quwama. If there is a spender, then there's someone who receives.
Since "nisaa" means those who are vulnerable (in anyway including not having means to gain money), then they will be the reciever. It's not a peripheral issue. It IS the issue as far as nisaa and rijaal are concerned (in as much as they are not women and men).
Quote
You said:
"Setting free a mu'min is not necessarily for the sake of this person, but for the society."

Why cant it be both? I think setting such a person free will benefit that individual greatly. Note, initially you did not include the "societal" impact clause.

Verse 4:92 speaks of conditions of when to free a prisoner. It deals with covenants between the community of the killer and that of the victim, and whether there's peace covenant or not. In both cases, the freed prisoner should be a "mu'min", which helps understand the meaning of "mu'min": not an aggressor; someone who extends peace to others (4:94), and this leads to my belief that this prisoner should be one who spreads peace, not aggression. This is mainly for the society.

Quote
You then imply 4:34 is about keeping secrets. And how these breadwinners are apparently taking care of the house and children and working.

I prefer not to discuss even more of the verse and get more complicated and prefer to stick to the crux of the issue, i.e. is there a contradiciton or not.
 

By secret I mean the reason why the husband is not working and how this has an impact on her...etc
Why should she do the housework and take care of the children and become also the breadwinner? This is not an obligation and is not prescribed by God. The husband should do his share and if he doesn't then no blame on her to complain.  If he helps in the house, which is the ideal situation the verse must be talking about, then she should not boast around as the bread winner. If she does, then he should advise her not to...etc through the rest of the steps up divorce or reconciliation

Quote
You said:
"You mentioned that I had to use the whole statement, now let's see:

(Men are guardians over women for what God favoured some of them over others).
If God favoured some men over other men, then we cannot say "all" men are guardians over "all" women. There are some men who are not favoured. What's their position vis-a-vis guardianship? What about men who are non-believers/ but criminals/ violent? What's their favour?
If the favour is over women: again, what about women who spend? A mother who works and keeps her sick or unemployed son/ husband/ father, is she his guardian or he her guardian? These examples by the way are very, very common, and almost every woman finds herself in such a situation at least for sometime in her life."


I already answered these questions in reply 47 on this thread (i.e. my first reply to you on this thread).

The only one I have not covered explicitly, although alluded to on Quran434.com is that of a women who fulfills the criteria of "qawwamoun" - what is her situation?

Well, as we can clearly see in 4:34 the CRITERIA of being "qawwamoun" is given as:

1) God preferred/bestowed on you (and this likely refers to capacity to work - we both agree on this)
and
2) spending of their money

So, as we can see, if a woman fulfills the above two criteria, she can be regarded as "qawwamoun" (assuming the husband or males are not providing also), there could be multiple "qawwamoun" per household.
 
Very Good. I agree...We agree  ;D

Quote
What The Quran is saying, quite ingeniously, is that it is the default duty/responsibility of the men to support/maintain due to the innate differences between men and women (i.e. pregnancy, child birth, suckling, generally physically weaker thus less job opportunities) - that is the default preference (further elaborated in 2:228, 2:233, 65:6), however note very carefully that the way it is phrased is done in such a manner as NOT to impose an absolute  rule that "men are qawaamanoun over women".
 

What do you mean by the last sentence? It DOES say exactly that.
Why mention pregnancy and childbirth? Women still work while they are pregnant and when they have kids. If they are unable, they fall within the category of the sick, men or women, and abstain. Same rules as for fasting. Why change the same rules here?
Moreover, how many years of the age an average woman spends on pregnancy and childbirth to make it such an issue?
What about unmarried women, sterile women?

Quote
The way it is said bases it on CRITERIA. And with the usage of "SOME of THEM over OTHERS/SOME (masculine plural) - further reinforces this and compliments this idea perfectly. In fact, in hindsight, it is ingenius.

So, as we can see, with regard to our viewpoints, we have the same outcome AND the Quran itself allows for it, and there is no need whatsoever for interpreting the terms rijal/nisa as anything other than men/women for this to work.

I'd be interested to know your thoughts on this

The way "some of them over some" as I explained it in an earlier post (post 78)  in a reply to huruf, on the issue of FDL, and according to the usage of this expression in the quraan, shows that it's a preference within ONE group, people of both genders in our verse, in opposition to the expression that shows preference between two specific groups.
The need for this interpretation of nisaa and rijaal rsides in he two examples given of two wives, where the second example of a woman whose  nushuuz to be feared may lead to divorce.
To what category do these two examples belong? Rijaal or nisaa'?
If someone is quwam over the other, the logic says we should show the criteria of this quwama. The verse did that.
Now the verse is giving examples of two quwamuuns who either behaved well or badly.
These two quwamuuns are rijaal. And it happened that both of them are women.

5
Quranic Divinity / Re: Is this verse applicable to todays women?
« on: March 10, 2012, 11:20:01 AM »


Also I asked if that feminine plural used for the salihaat, qanitaat hafidhat, stands also for males, because if Samias understanding is  followed it should stand also for males.  Would that be right from the point of view of grammar?

Salaam

A few days ago I wrote a long post that would have explained this, but it was gone! Didn't have more time to rewrite it.

I just have one comment on the other part of your post before I get to this part.
When you say "men are guardians over women": What qualifications do these men have with regard ethics, moral or even dogma? What's the meaning of this guardianship if not linked to spending?

If both men and women can spend on each other, why is the quwama for men only?

Here I am not saying masculine contains feminine, but I am saying that the meaning of rijal as used in the quraan and as the root indicates, means "on foot", i.e active, seeking "bounty", and nisaa as also used in the quraan in some verses and as its root indicates, means "the late, left behind":
(verse: 4:127): وَيَسْتَفْتُونَكَ فِي النِّسَاءِ ۖ قُلِ اللَّـهُ يُفْتِيكُمْ فِيهِنَّ وَمَا يُتْلَىٰ عَلَيْكُمْ فِي الْكِتَابِ فِي يَتَامَى النِّسَاءِ اللَّاتِي لَا تُؤْتُونَهُنَّ مَا كُتِبَ لَهُنَّ وَتَرْغَبُونَ أَن تَنكِحُوهُنَّ وَالْمُسْتَضْعَفِينَ مِنَ الْوِلْدَانِ وَأَن تَقُومُوا لِلْيَتَامَىٰ بِالْقِسْطِ ۚ

(And they request from you a [legal] ruling concerning nisaa. Say, "Allah gives you a ruling about them and [about] what has been recited to you in the Book concerning:
1- others of fatherless children to whom you do not give what is decreed for them - and [yet] you desire to marry them
2 - and concerning the oppressed among children
3- and that you maintain for orphans [their rights] in fairness).
As you see, all these three categories fall within "nisaa'".

Then the verse narrows to take a specific case of couples, where the woman spends and the man is, for any reason, unable to work or get a job or has no money.
It's logical that the verse speaks about the person who is responsible to show them how to be rightly responsible, and what results to expect when they behave badly. In this case it is the wife.
Why only the example of couples? Because any other relation is temporarily, and not obligatory (save the parents who have alone a specific rule not linked to anything or fDDL except to them being parents). Moreover, no other relation needs to be taken to the authorities just because the needy party does not like the behavior of the one putting a roof over their head and food on their table.

The plurals you mention are true feminine. The reason is that we have an analogous verse concerning husbands who are "nashez" and how to deal with them (4:12).

6

وَرَأَيْتَ النَّاسَ يَدْخُلُونَ فِي دِينِ اللَّهِ أَفْوَاجًا

 
Of course  :peace:

7
Salam Sister,

The words are not interchangeable. Rasul does not mean message. Both are distinct.

أَفَلَمْ يَدَّبَّرُوا الْقَوْلَ أَمْ جَاءَهُمْ مَا لَمْ يَأْتِ آَبَاءَهُمُ الْأَوَّلِينَ (68) أَمْ لَمْ يَعْرِفُوا رَسُولَهُمْ فَهُمْ لَهُ مُنْكِرُونَ (69)

Why not? Actually the first verse speaks of "qawl: speech".
So it fits for a message better than it does for a person.
As I said the word rasool" originally means message. It lends its name to its carrier, so when the quraan speaks of the messenger" it alludes to him with the message and for the message, not specifically as an independent person. He is the "speaking" message .

And as for the second verse: (23:69) اَمۡ لَمۡ یَعۡرِفُوۡا رَسُوۡلَہُمۡ فَہُمۡ لَہٗ مُنۡکِرُوۡنَ

How can they know (as knowing a person first hand) both messengers (as persons)?

8

BTW, what is the use of knowing Muhammed as we know our sons? If we know AlKitaab as we know our sons, that will be really help to save us on each and every step we take in our life.

 :bravo:

Exactly!

His people "qawm"  knew him very well. Did it help at all?

وقالَ الرَّسُولُ يَا رَبِّ إِنَّ قَوْمِي اتَّخَذُوا هَـٰذَا الْقُرْآنَ مَهْجُورًا

And the messenger will say: O my Lord! Lo! my own folk  immobilized this Qur'an.

   His uncles did know him as "they knew their sons", still they refused to believe in the message he is delivering!!

9
Does this also not help to understand the Object Pronoun under debate?

أَمْ لَمْ يَعْرِفُوا رَسُولَهُمْ فَهُمْ لَهُ مُنْكِرُونَ

Salaam Mazhar

The word "rasool" is mainly "the message".
It gave its name to its carrier.
Knowing the man does not imply anything...The quraan tells us that the prophet will complain of his own people for ignoring the quraan.
Also, the people who knew the prophet since his childhood were those who disbelieved him most.

From Lisaan-ul-Arab:

والرَّسول الرِّسالة والمُرْسَل  (the "rasool" is the message and what/ who is sent).
Also:
وسُمِّي الرَّسول رسولاً لأَنه ذو رَسُول أَي ذو رِسالة.  (rasool is so called because he has a rasool, i.e a risala )
In the quraan we have:

فَأْتِيَا فِرْعَوْنَ فَقُولَا إِنَّا رَسُولُ رَبِّ الْعَالَمِينَ
And go, both of you, unto Pharaoh and say, ‘Behold, we "bear a message (rasool)" from the Sustainer of all the worlds: (26:16)

Back to the main verses 6:20 and 2: 146.
If we carefully read the context of the preceding verses, we find that the "people of the book" are arguing with what the messenger was telling them or doing, not about who the messenger was.
Knowing something as you know your sons is a comparison, parable, of recognitions and does not necessarily apply to people in this context.
I completely agree with the rendition of Shabbir, Maududi, Yousuf Ali and Asad.

10
Quranic Divinity / Re: Is this verse applicable to todays women?
« on: March 02, 2012, 09:33:04 PM »

Salaam Samia,

Exceptions are women/females those in the inner circle one simple exception and the expression is obviously Arabic as example below which the address is to the general public speaking to both sexes....

3:61 أبناءنا our sons وأبناءكم and your sons ونساءنا and our women ونساءكم and your women/females


The whole verse:

فَمَنْ حَاجَّكَ فِيهِ مِن بَعْدِ مَا جَاءَكَ مِنَ الْعِلْمِ فَقُلْ تَعَالَوْا نَدْعُ أَبْنَاءَنَا وَأَبْنَاءَكُمْ وَنِسَاءَنَا وَنِسَاءَكُمْ وَأَنفُسَنَا وَأَنفُسَكُمْ ثُمَّ نَبْتَهِلْ فَنَجْعَل لَّعْنَتَ اللَّـهِ عَلَى الْكَاذِبِينَ

And if anyone should argue with thee about this [truth] after all the knowledge that has come unto thee, say: "Come! Let us summon our sons and your sons, and our نساء/ nisaa' and your نساء/ nisaa', and ourselves and yourselves; and then let us pray [together] humbly and ardently, and let us invoke God's curse upon those [of us] who are telling a lie."
Questions to ponder:

- Who are "we" and "you"? Are they just men or men and women?
If you say just men, does it mean that only men argue with the prophet about the truth after all the knowledge that has come unto him? And that the prophet discusses only with men but not with women? (I am OK with this if you see so...at least acknowledging that only men argue about the truth, even with the prophet  :! and they will go to hell, not women  :yay:).
If you say it is a mixed group:
- Where is "our men and your men"?
- Aren't "our women" included in us, or are they also ladies of the extended family/ tribal/ inner circle? Then who are the "women" included in "us"?

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