It is obvious without being there. Jesus was quoted while saying words of Aramaic and the Greek translators were kind enough not to translate certain words he uttered, so it is safe to say the man spoke Syriac Aramaic.
So if I understand you correctly you saw some translations with Aramaic words in it and you decided that Jesus spoke Aramaic and that the translators were Greeks and that they misunderstood him?
And these conclusions are obvious to you?
One is that he is claimed to have said "I am the way", but he was saying back then that "the way is through the own being (the I AM)". Most references allegedly to himself is in actually to each person's self. He wanted to say that everything is about finding yourself in order to find your origin, so looking for the divine is done within yourself for there is where you will find "God".
RED: How do you know this? Were you Jesus in your previous life?
Similar to the Persians in ancient Semitic linguistic use "God" was referred to as allah because the word means "the who like". اله is simply "The Who" from the third person suffix used, but people made it into something else despite the simple language.
RED: Its better to say my definition of Allah is "the who like", because it's ONLY your definition.
Allah is very similar to the Persian word that way. It is from when Moses learned that "God" is "Who Is", i.e. he was told "I am who I am". From that time the unity of being has been called Alehoim or Allahem with the revamped grammar of Arabic. And it is about having "God" with/in you and it being shown by your way of being.
But that you have probably seen me write before but rejected it.
RED: Of course, because in my opinion your whole theory does simply make no sense.
Besides that you just use old lexicons and old scriptures. Very similar to those who use hadiths to make their point.
So imo your whole theory is at best just another baseless hadith based on baseless hadiths.